Ever since the Supreme Court’s official attempt last month to override the Creator’s definition of marriage, I’ve seen an endless barrage of
editorials propaganda designed to get Christians to abandon the orthodox and historical position of the Church on the issue. This one, however, is one of the most over-the-top and keeps showing up in my news feeds, so I thought I would break down the absolute falsehoods the writer is trying to get the undiscerning to swallow:
Claim: “The word “homosexuality” didn’t even show up in English translations of the Bible until 1946, so why do we say the Bible condemns it?”
Answer: because anyone reasonably educated realizes there are synonyms and contextual clues that don’t require use of a specific word that was not even coined until the 1880s — well after the Bible was written. It’s clear from reading scripture, however, that not only does this behavior date back to Biblical times, but that God had specific views of it:
“Thou shalt not lie with the male as one lieth with a woman: for it is abomination.” Leviticus 18:22, Geneva Bible translation of 1599 A.D. (Unless the writer of the linked editorial wants to claim that “lying with a male as one lies with a woman” isn’t a direct reference to homosexuality, whether by the modern name or not, I think this one verse alone suffices to show a lack of diligence by the writer — or an agenda.)
“Know ye not that the unrighteous shall not inherit the kingdom of God? Be not deceived: neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor wantons, nor buggerers, nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor railers, nor extortioners shall inherit the kingdom of God.” 1 Cor 6: 9-10, Geneva Bible translation of 1599 A.D (considerably before 1946!).
Next, according to the writer: “Franklin, son of Billy, even goes on to make the Biblically inaccurate comment that ‘The One who created marriage defined it as between a man and a woman.'”
Answer (the words of Christ, God incarnate):